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How To Talk About Batman (& Other Fictional Characters) – Philosophy Tube ft. Dylan Dubeau

Philosophy Tube | April 20, 2026



How can you make true statements about Batman when he doesn’t exist? Will a fictional quantifier do the job, or will it lead to logical contradictions? Do we need 3-valued logic? Watch and find out!
Dylan’s half of the collab: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=jLw8quWofqk&feature=youtu.be

Metaphysics playlist: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLvoAL-KSZ32cX32PRBl1D4b4wr8DwhRQ4

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Suggested Reading:
Gideon Rosen: “Modal Fictionalism” and “A Problem for Fictionalism About Possible Worlds”
Saul Kripke, “Naming and Necessity”
David Lewis “On the Plurality of Worlds”

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Music: ‘Show your Moves’ by Kevin MacLeod (incompetech.com)
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Written by Philosophy Tube

Comments

This post currently has 46 comments.

  1. @Erja_

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    Ik it's been 10 years, but I do have a question : If I say "I Love Batman." I am real (I hope so) and Batman (I am talking about the character, not the comics) is fictional. The affirmation can be changed, but the question lies in both of the realities (ours and the fictional one). In that case, should we create another quantifier or is it still the existential quantifier? Is it true or false?

  2. @tommink8379

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I just watched this, so many years too late. Still, I'm struck by the idea of a fictional quantifier. I can see a couple interesting uses. When talking about stories, a fictional quantifier could be an indication that you're referencing explicit canon.
    You could also use a fictional quantifier when talking about real world things to show that you're referencing something other than their concrete existence. It could make explicit when you're using things like metonymy or branding. Nike the company, and Nike the brand are different things. The city of London, and the wider concept of London as a stand-in for government or culture are also different things.

  3. @larrypass6720

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    There needs to be something in the notation that specifies which version of the fictional universe one is referring to. In your Sherlock Holmes example, for instance, he lives at 221B Baker Street in the original Conan Doyle stories and most adaptations. But in the Elementary TV series, he lives in New York. If, in some movie adaptation, his address is not explicitly stated, do we still take it to be 221B Baker Street, or does it fall into the "undetermined" category?

    And then there's the problem of retconning. Example: In the issues of Superboy published in the 1960s, the Kents sold their farm and opened a general store in Smallville, where Clark grew up. After DC retconned his story, the Kents still owned the farm when Clark moved to Metropolis. So, is the statement "F!x [Clark Kent helped out in his parents' general store]" true, false, undetermined, or something else?
    This second problem came up when I was reading Robert Heinlein's Podkayne of Mars to my daughter. At a certain point she grew worried and asked me, "Does Podkayne die?" In the originally published version, she doesn't, nut in the "Author's preferred version". she does.

  4. @besacciaesteban

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    What about a probabilistic stance? You can say that the probability of x and not x must be 1 when added togheter. Even though you can't say x or not x for certain, it could be useful when analizing some situations. I'm inclined to say that there's an almost negligible probabilty that "batman has 100k hairs" is a true statement.

  5. @The_Prosecutorrr

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    But isn't our notion of "what really exists" too narrow? 1) Earth exists in spacetime. 2) Batman universe exists on earth. 3) Batman unverse exists in a part of spacetime.
    Why are we all spacetime fundamentalists, and belittle our own imagination and say such selfdefeating things like: Justice and Democracy are "just" social constructions?

    It would be neat if we could trust both kinds of experts again: the engineers and the artists.
    .

  6. @The_Prosecutorrr

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    Markus Gabriel generalized this concept to what he calls Ontological Pluralism. He takes Hegel's idea of there not being any fundamentals – no first principles – a step further: 1) By saying that "the" world, i.e. a unifying concept of everything does not exist. And 2) By defining "to exist" as to appear in a field of sense, i.e. a context/story in which, a fact, a thing, a fiction or any imagninary idea or object makes sense locally.
    This is a much more compelling way to be a marxist without being a fundamentalist reductionist/materialist.
    In the story of Batman the weight of the Higgs Boson is just as contingent as the number of his hairs.
    In the story of physics the number of superhero's is just as contingent as the number of books on my shelf.
    In the story of English Democracy just about all of the above are equally contingent as a fly that unknowingly pooped on tuesday before getting baked into the pizza you ordered the next day.

    In the story of Social Sciences and art in general, the theory of Ontological Pluralism is a neccessary balance to Daniel Dennet et al. Natural Sciences are just a toolbox, not a metaphysical unifying concept that can or ever will explain "everything". We don't even know what that is supposed to be: "Everything". Physics is a method that by definition has excluded all human experience for certain reasons. It is a fascinating way to speed up our technological ideas and build new tools. But without a moral compass, without unlimited imagination, without a culture of fiction and a democracy of social facts those tools will only backfire.

    Let's start a metaphysical pandemic of ideas!

    Down with the technocracy of Silicon Vally and Wall Street!

    .

  7. @amlaaaa479

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    It's not a quantifier though. It's a fictional operator. Your quantifier reads: In the fiction, there is an x such that x is F. But the advantage of the operator is that it can be attached to sentences containing names. Even in your examples you use names not descriptions

  8. @Pfhorrest

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    The obvious best design for a fictional quantifier would be an F rotated 180 degrees, just like the existential quantifier is an E rotated 180 degrees. That even exists in Unicode already: Ⅎ (U+2132 or HTML entity &#8498).

  9. @Pfhorrest

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    The kinds of contradictions in question here arise even when you're talking about the real world, but about non-existent objects in it. "The king of France has 100,000 hairs" and "The king of France does not have 100,000 hairs" are both false, because there is no king of France. But that doesn't contradict the principle of bivalence because logically each of those sentences gets constructed as "there exists some x who is the king of France who [has / does not have] 100,000 hairs", and the negation of that is just "There does not exist some x who…" etc. The originally two sentences aren't actually each other's negations, though colloquially they sound like it. Likewise, "Batman has 100,000 hairs" implicitly means "There are Batman stories that claim that Batman has 100,000 hairs", and the negation of that is NOT "There are Batman stories that claim that Batman does not have 100,000 hairs", it's "There are no Batman stories that claim that Batman has 100,000 hairs".

    Furthermore, fiction is entirely capable of being self-contradictory without logical problems. "The MCU says that Spider-Man Homecoming takes place in 2020" and "The MCU says that Spider-Man Homecoming takes place in 2016" are both true, even though those claims are contradictory: what's true is not the contradiction, but that the story SAYS that contradiction. We would only get a logical problem requiring the violation of bivalence if the MCU both said and did not ever say one of those things, but clear that doesn't happen because that's logically impossible.

  10. @roberthall1102

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I realize I'm 4 years late to the party, but :
    1) You don't need an additional quantifier for fiction. You can use the existential quantifier. "There exists a Mr. Wayne such that: (Mr. Wayne is a character in the story) and (further claims)". The story exists and characters are real attributes of stories, even if the stories are fiction. Alternately, you can use the universal quantifier. "For every Mr. Wayne in the story: (claims about Mr. Wayne)". The universal quantifier doesn't claim that Mr. Wayne exists, it just allows you to make claims that would be true or false if he did exist. Since the story defines a set of attributes for Mr. Wayne, claims about the defined attributes are testable.
    2) SQL uses a 3 value logic. A database of addresses would have a blank field for my apt. number, because no number has been assigned to my apt., in the same way that no quantity has been assigned to the hairs on Mr. Wayne's head. While NULL is formally defined as Unknown, it in fact often represents indeterminacy of the type described in your video.

  11. @Kram1032

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I would go with something like a backwards F for Fictional Quantifier and, in order to avoid having potentially infinitely many of them for infinitely many stories, I'd make it inherently a dependent quantifier that requires at least one input, such as:
    F(Batman)! Batman has 100000 hair on his had
    (would be Indeterminate)

    rather than going BF for "Batman Fictional"

  12. @plasticturnipboy5642

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    lol I love your content but math isn't your strong suit. You didn't say that Batman has AT LEAST 100.000 hairs
    If Hairs(H)=100.001
    then the calls
    H==100.000 = False
    H=!100.000=False
    aren't contradictory. You can do this an infinite amount of times for any conceivable number except 100.001 and the answer is always FALSE.

  13. @plasmaballin

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    The apparent contradictions aren't real contradictions. The subtlety lies in where the negations are. If we use X as an arbitrary quantifier and S as an arbitrary statement, then "~Xx Sx and Xx Sx" would be a contradiction, but "Xx ~Sx and Xx Sx" is not a contradiction, nor is "~Xx Sx and ~Xx ~Sx". For instance "∃x Sx and ∃x ~Sx" means that there exists some x for which statement S is true, and there exists another x for which it is false. If S is "x=5" and the domain of discourse is the natural numbers, this statement is true, not contradictory. There exists a natural number equal to five, and there are also natural numbers not equal to five.
    Similarly, the statement "~∀x Sx and ~∀x ~Sx" is true in many circumstances. Again, if we take the domain of discourse to be the natural numbers and S is "x=5", the statement is true. Not all natural numbers are equal to five, but it is also true that not all natural numbers are not equal to five.
    The example in the video is like the latter case. Since it isn't specified in the story how many hairs Batman has, ~F!x Hx. ("It is not the case that in the story, Batman has 100,000 hairs.") However, it is also true that ~F!x ~Hx. These two statements do not contradict be because of where the negation is. If the negation that they differ by was outside of the quantifier, i.e. negating the entire statement, it would be a contradiction, but since the negation is part of the quantified statement, it isn't a contradiction.
    An indeterminate statement about a fictional story is therefore logically the same as a statement that is true for some x, but not for others, i.e. a statement where both "S is true for all x" and "S is not true for all x" are false.

  14. @abramthiessen8749

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    What about quantum indeterminacy?
    In the common view (Copenhagen interpretation) quantum states are fundamentally undetermined until they interact with other quantum systems in such a way that collapses the wavefunction (shrinks the range of possibilities).
    There are some interpretations of quantum mechanics where quantum states are fundamentally determined but still fundamentally unmeasurable and so undeterminable but still fixed and non-random. Such theories have to allow for faster than light interactions between quantum states and hidden undetectable variables but view the world as truly determinate.

    If two such theories predict exactly the same results, can it be said that one is true and the other is false, or can be both be true, or are they both indeterminate in the same sense as the answer to a fictional question?

  15. @AlexBermann

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I don't see that there is a difference between fictional and real world in terms of logic.

    Take the statement "It's sunny today". This statement only is true in the limitations of a specific spot in time and space. Next, let's look at "It's going to be sunny tomorrow". Depending on how time works, we can't know for certain if this statement is true or it will only become true tomorrow. The truth of the statement only becomes knowable or existent once it becomes observable.
    Let's return to Batman. As far as I know, we don't have official statements about how many hair Bruce Wayne has. Thus, it's in this very state. Furthermore, as it is possible that this number changes, we can't necessarily apply the information to other issues.

    This is way closer to how logic concerning the real world actually functions. Good scientific theories are logical coherent, but they may be revised because there is a whole lot of the universe we don't perceive and more a lot we don't perceive precisely. This leaves us with two options:
    a) Logic is a system of reasoning that doesn't have to correlate with reality.
    b) Functional logic deals with uncertainty.

  16. @cody7236

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    This is a waste of time. We all know they don't physically exist. You owe me 3 minutes and 26 seconds of my life back. I didn't even finish the video because your ears weird me out.

  17. @merenmeso

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    Wont the contradiction be solved in a possible world semantics, especially given that its a talk about fictions ? and in that sense your fictional quantifier just implies a possible world….

  18. @Hoshikage869

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I don't see how saying that within the story, Batman has X amount of hairs is false. It is simply unknown if it's true or false until the story clarifies it. I don't see why some indeterminacy principle has to even be invented when it seems to obviously already be the state of unspecified fictional claims.

  19. @BrentSimpsonEnhance

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    One could probably say something along the lines of, "in most cases Bruce Wayne, of the Batman stories is not bald" and most people would agree with something like that. I like your recategorization here… I think it is a move to integralize objective realities and subjective imagination.

  20. @michaelberg9348

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    'peeking into the can of worms of 'real world indeterminacy'': Schrodinger's cat is alive?

    Back to the 'lets not open up that can of worms' realm:

    "Batman has 100.000 hairs", "Batman does not have 100.000 hairs": both false, is a contradiction. True
    "The story states "Batman has 100.000 hairs" ", "The story states "Batman does not have 100.000 hairs" ": both false, is a contradiction. False. 'the story doesn't state' is a logical possibility

    But to use the 'F!x'-quantifier as presented here : 'In the story: '
    "In the story Batman has 100.000 hairs", "In the story Batman does not have 100.000 hairs": both false, is a contradiction. True.

    While the question 'how would 3-valued-logic' work, is a question that will probably cost me my evening. (and substantially longer if i don't give up after that (plausible)), i would need a better example to be convinced we need it.

    After all (i'm really hoping to be corrected on this one)
    In our world[The story doesn't state how many hairs Batman has] ->(In our world[)
    In the story[Batman has a number of hairs that is merely unknown] (])

    I'll probably also lose some time on finding a way to find a notation around 'discussing fictional facts'.
    because while F!x[#Hairs on batman]), needing the F!x-qualifier requires batman doesn't exist, F!x[#Hairs on batman]), being able to usethe F!x-qualifier requires a story about batman does.

  21. @HeavyMetalMouse

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I don't see that ~F!x[P(x)] and ~F!x[~P(x)] need be contradictory. The ficitonal-existance operator need not be transitive with negation in the same way the Existance operator is. What consequences this would have for the actual symbolic logic manipulation of F!x is… beyond my current capacities, but would be fascinating. It seems important to note that F!x[foo] does not mean 'in the story: foo', but 'in the story, there exists some x such that: foo'. Keeping that definition rigorous should eliminate the contradictions.

  22. @pete275

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    "batman has 10k hairs on his head" can be true or false, just like saying "real person x has 10k hairs on his head". In the case of "real person x", the answer is "I don't know, let's find out" and we go and count the hairs on his head, and then say true or false. In the case of Batman it's the same, except instead of counting the hairs on his head (which we can't do because he's not real), we just go ask the author of batman. He'll respond and we can say, again, true or false. Sure, maybe there are multiple authors of Batman who might have different opinions, or maybe there are multiple DC universes where the number of hairs are different, but the same can happen with Real Person X, he might grow a new hair tomorrow, or lose some hairs in the shower. It's not a terribly different outcome..

  23. @jezuswolf

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I think statements about fiction can be explained by modal realism. Saying "batman has 100,000 hairs on his head" is like saying "In the possible world most similar to ours except that batman (and thus also the other required features of the batman story) exist, batman has 100,000 hairs on his head." I didn't do a good job about explaining my stance at first, and I do recognize that some philosophers think of possible worlds themselves are a kind of fiction, the way I see it is that if we treat statements that aren't specified in a story as modal statements we can get around this contradiction.

  24. @anchor83

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I'm not sure if the idea has been covered yet, but wouldn't the idea of Batman/Spiderman being a human being at least give an inclination on the likelihood of any of them having 100000 hairs? It is implied that Peter Parker is human, he had a mom and a dad and live in New York city, so he is human. With that statement follows all the knowledge that comes with real human beings… brunettes have on average 108000 hairs so it is possible that Peter Parker that is imagined as a brunette have a little bit less than average. We don't know, but neither do we know if the statement are true in regards to your neighbor also.

  25. @TheRabDab

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    Instead of introducing a fictional quantifier, could we try a different approach? Could we, as Meinong first did, suggest that there are non-existent objects.

    The idea is that fictional things like Sherlock Holmes and Batman have some sort of being distinct from existence. Existence is a  property that some things have, but some do not. When we talk about Batman we don't fail to refer to something, we refer to a nonexistent object. So when we say 'Batman is male', this is a meaningful statement with a particular truth value and there is something that makes this statement true (i.e. the nonexistent Batman). 

    Obviously this idea needs much more development than what I have said here to provide a compelling ontology, but I think it's an interesting idea and a nice solution to the problem of fictional discourse. We can also use this idea to talk other things which lack existence too, such as unicorns or (and this depends on your view of time) past and future things like Julius Caesar or the first human outpost on Mars.

    What do you guys think? 

  26. @philipheard2304

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    Isn't there an implicature inherent in our speech? The intent of the speaker is to communicate "In the fictional world of batman, Bruce Wayne has a butler named Alfred.". There is no need to add a quantifier in this example.

    I am sure there is an easy counter example to my counter argument, I just can not think of one at the moment. 

  27. @derfoss

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    The "contradiction" you point to in 3:10 is not clearly a logical contradiction. 
    Consider the negations of the two sentences you give:
    (1) ~F!x (Batman has 100,000 hairs)
    (2) ~F!x (Batman does not have 100,000 hairs)

    In order to show that there is a formal inconsistency here, you need to prove that the following is valid for any p:
    (3) ~F!x (p) |- F!x (~p)
    [In this case: If it's not the case that according to the story, batman has 100,000 hairs, then it IS the case that according to the story, Batman does NOT have 100,000 hairs.]

    The equivalent of (3) is valid for the existential quantifier, but does not need to be valid for every operator. Intuitively, it is not valid for the [x believes that] operator. And if (3) is false, then (1) and (2) are consistent. Hence, there is no challenge to classical logic here.

    [That argument was quick, due to the Youtube format. If you want a more thorough argument against (3), I'm happy to message you one. Kripke's John Locke Lectures (Reference and Existence) are a great place to look for discussion of this problem.]

  28. @ziliath5237

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    Philosophy Tube
    i just found your channel, thanks to your latest co-lab. 🙂

    I like the idea of indeterminacy… but now i wonder how if at all this could be worked into non fictional statements…

    but if we did being Indeterminite to reality is inherently a perspective bias

    the same goes for the "f!c" modifier…Person A relaying information about a proposition "within the story" [F!c] can know for certain the number of hairs on batman's head, but person B does not because that information was only revealed  in issue X of Y comic in which person B has not read that story..

    So does "in the story" refer to the perspective fromt he person makign the statement or the real objective reality of the story (both [Within the stories continuity (in its entirety independent of perspective)] and or [outside the stories continuity] (in its entirety independent of perspective)) or the Infomation contained within the story telling apparatus? as in the story only retold by the apparatus (eg word of mouth, images in a book) (which is inherently a perspective)

  29. @BruceWhiskeyCreek

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    It seems intuitive to fill details in these fictional universes with details from our experience of the universe unless the story explicitly states otherwise. Works of fiction come from the imaginations of people in this universe, so they cannot be independent of this world. It's more of a shared reality type of thing, if everyone agrees that we live in Gotham, then we live in Gotham. Batman has as many hairs as we believe he has.

  30. @katinamarlin5052

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    Could you imply with this that Batman is real? In the sense that the whole point of this is factual consistency. You can say Batman is a fictional character. This is presumed in others' mind and yours to be a true statement. If I say Batman is real, we're referring to the same thing, Batman. How can you them acknowledge, both of us, something that does not exist? Could you say it sprouted from our own minds and is a product of what is to be needed inevitably? There should be some underlying factor that allows truth. To say it might be consistency to our comprehension is an option. Batman is real is true, though not in the same concept of this mysterious Batman, yet still retaining widespread knowledge and acknowledge of different ideas that are understood to be the same.

  31. @AliceObscura

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    To be honest, I'm not persuaded.  I think it is more accurate to think of fiction as a series of strictly false propositions.  You use "in the context of the story/narrative/lore/etc" to make a false proposition true.  The reason the propositions are false are exactly because the person (in this case batman) isn't real.  I know it may pain nerds to hear, but it's actually better to begin all fictional narratives with, "what I'm about to tell you is a series of false propositions."  Additionally, because all of the propositions are false, all narratives and arguments about the subject are equally valid (where valid means there's no world in which all of the props are true and yet the conclusion is still false: in this case all of the props are false, therefore the argument is automatically valid).  Though this frustratingly means that both the statements batman lives in Gotham and batman does not live in Gotham are equally false (precisely because the category of things which are batman is a null set) it is the most honest.  Forgive me if this is too Platonic.  I don't hate art, but I certainly agree with Plato that its value–if it has any–is a reflection of a reflection, and any statements made about it are to some extent false (ie, a painting of batman is not batman, but is only a caricature of batman, which is itself a caricature of non-existent vigilante).

  32. @bajikmalig

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I believe the problem stems from the phrasing of the fictional quantifier itself, not how it operates.  All that would be necessary is to propose "it is defined by the canon of Batman that", instead of "in the story of Batman".  It isn't a problem to state that both "it is defined by the canon of Batman that Batman has 100,000 hairs", and, "it is defined by the canon of Batman that Batman does not have 100,000 hairs", are false because the statement doesn't claim to know how many hairs Batman possesses, but whether or not that fact has previously been defined in his universe.  This conveniently allows indeterminacy by way of avoiding the notion that there is a reasonable answer in the first place without ignoring the Principal of Bivalence, for any question that is indeterminate is false.

    This does lead to the question of whether or not something is canonically explained in the series if the answer is false, but it is easily solved by stating that F!x[Batman has a quantifiable amount of hairs].  If this is also false, the original answer is indeterminate, yet this still doesn't break the rules of the Principal of Bivalence since both question can still be answered as only true or false.

  33. @Void890123

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    I don't think the fact the excluded middle is false is really a contradiction. Consider knowledge: Both the statements "I know alien life exists" and "I know does not exist" are false, but this doesn't feel contradictory.

  34. @ksemanr

    April 20, 2026 at 11:21 am

    1. 3-valued logic isn't a problem, even when talking about the real world. Far easier to grasp than half the stuff quantum mechanics tells us already
    2. The whole prefex talked about in the first half of "in the story" doesn't need to be said for the statement to be true, it is implied and everyone in the conversation who has ever even heard of Batman knows that it is implied.

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